1 Timothy 3:2-7

1 Timothy 3:2-7

[2] A bishop  then  must  blameless,  the husband  wife,  vigilant,  sober,  of good behaviour,  given to hospitality,  apt to teach;  [3] Not  given to wine,  no  striker,  not  but  patient,  not a brawler,  not covetous;  [4] One that ruleth  well  his own  house,  having  his children  in  subjection  with  all  gravity;  [5] (For  not  how  to rule  his own  house,  how  shall he take care of  the church  of God?)  [6] Not  a novice,  being lifted up with pride  he fall  into  the condemnation  of the devil.  [7] Moreover  must  have  a good  report  of  them which are without;  he fall  into  reproach  and  the snare  of the devil. 

What does 1 Timothy 3:2-7 Mean?

Contextual Meaning

Paul listed15 characteristics here that should mark the life of a man who aspired to serve as an elder. [1]
1.The description "above reproach" (irreproachable, Gr. anepilempton, 1 Timothy 3:2; cf. 1 Timothy 5:7; 1 Timothy 6:14; Titus 1:6) means that he should possess no observable flaw in his character or conduct. That Isaiah , there should be no cause for justifiable criticism now or in his past (cf. 1 Timothy 3:10) that anyone could use to discredit him and bring reproach on the name of Christ and the church. The Greek word means "not to be laid hold of." This is the main quality that the following ones make clearer or unpack. No one is perfect, but an elder should be a person that no one can legitimately criticize for the way he lives.
2.There have been many interpretations of the phrase "husband of one wife" (Gr. mias gunaikos andra, 1 Timothy 3:2). There are four major views as to what Paul had in mind. First, the elder must be married. Second, he must be married only once. Third, he must be monogamous. Fourth, he must be a moral husband. All the other qualifications are character traits. This may be a clue how we should interpret this one too.
We need to answer three related questions before we can arrive at a proper interpretation of this qualification. First, was Paul looking at the potential elder in his present condition, since his conversion, or over his entire lifetime? What do the other qualifications suggest in this regard? It seems that the man"s present condition is in view primarily. [2]
Second, what conditions, if any, result in the dissolution of the marriage relationship besides death (cf. Matthew 5:31-32; Matthew 19:3-12; Mark 10:2-12; Luke 16:18; and 1 Corinthians 7:8-16; 1 Corinthians 7:25-28)? I believe remarriage after a divorce does.
Third, under what conditions, if any, does God permit Christians to remarry (cf. Matthew 5:31-32; Matthew 19:2-12; and 1 Corinthians 7:15; 1 Corinthians 7:25-28)? I believe God permits remarriage if the divorced person"s mate has died or has remarried someone else.
View1: He must be married.This view sees as disqualified all unmarried men. [3] PROCONIf a man is going to oversee a local church he must have successful experience overseeing a family household ( 1 Timothy 3:5).The emphasis on "one" in the Greek text suggests a contrast between one or more wives rather than one or no wives.Paul could simply have said the elder needed to be married if that is what he meant.To be consistent 1 Timothy 3:4 would require that the elder have children (plural) too. [4] View2: He must be married only once.This view sees as disqualified men who remarry for any reason such as widowers and divorcees. [5] PROCONPaul urged the unmarried and widows to remain unmarried in 1 Corinthians 7:8.Paul urged the younger widows to remarry ( 1 Timothy 5:14; cf1Corinthians7).The early church looked down on remarriage for any reason. [6] Remarrying did not disqualify widows from receiving regular support from the church ( 1 Timothy 5:9).If a man does not remarry, he provides a better example for the church of what it means to be Spirit-controlled and totally dependent on God"s grace.There is nothing essentially sinful about remarrying when the marriage bond has been broken ( 1 Corinthians 7:9; cf. Romans 7:2-3).The phrase "wife of one man" ( 1 Timothy 5:9), which is identical to "husband of one wife" except for the switch in sexes, in its context seems to mean married only once.Since this appears to be the only moral qualification for the elder office it is unlikely that Paul viewed remarriage as the worst possible moral offense that would disqualify a man.
A variation of this view that some interpreters prefer is that divorce and remarriage disqualify a Prayer of Manasseh , but the death of a wife and remarriage do not. [7] PROCONThere is nothing morally culpable about being a widower, but there is about being a divorcee.Not every case of divorce renders a man morally culpable (blameworthy).View3: He must be monogamous.This view sees as disqualified any man who is married to more than one woman at a time. This would include bigamists, polygamists, and perhaps remarried divorcees depending on the circumstances of their divorce. [8] PROCONThe emphasis on "one" wife in the Greek text contrasts with more than one wife.To be consistent we would have to conclude that polyandry was also common ( 1 Timothy 5:9), but it was not. [9] Jewish, Greek, and Roman cultures practiced polygamy at this time. [10] If this is all Paul meant, he hardly needed to mention it since polygamy was inappropriate for all Christians, not just elders (cf. 1 Corinthians 7:2).View4: He must be a moral husband.This view sees as disqualified any man who is or has been morally unfaithful to his wife (or wives if he is remarried). [11] Some interpreters view any divorce as infidelity, others only divorce in which the husband has been unfaithful.PROCONThis is an idiomatic use of the phrase "husband of one wife." It means a "one-woman man."Paul could have said "faithful to his wife" if that is all he meant.Paul seems to use "wife of one man" in the same way in 1 Timothy 5:9 to describe a faithful wife.Since God commanded all Christians to be morally pure Paul must have meant more than this here.Since this is the only moral qualification for an elder we should probably interpret it broadly as forbidding immorality.One variation of this view is that the man must be a faithful husband now even though he may have been unfaithful in the past (before and or after his conversion). [12] PROCONThis interpretation is consistent with the other qualifications for elders all of which deal with the man"s present condition.All the other qualifications for elders view the man"s total record of behavior, not just his present condition.God forgives all sin and so should the church.A presently faithful husband may have established a record of previous unfaithfulness that would make him a bad example as an elder.The consequences of sin usually follow even though God does forgive the guilt of all sin. For this reason, immorality in marriage disqualifies a man.A second variation of this view is that the man must have proved himself faithful in the past (either all his life or since his conversion) as well as in the present. [13] PROCONPaul must have had the man"s record of behavior in view since the other qualifications require that we take the past into consideration.The church should forgive all sin since God does.If Paul had meant that God wipes away the consequences of sin as well as its guilt, he did not need to give any qualifications. Almost any Christian presently walking in fellowship with God could qualify.
The qualification "the husband of one wife" seem to preclude the possibility of women holding this office. Paul could have said "the partner or mate of one spouse." The fact that all the qualification words in 1 Timothy 3:2 through7 are masculine in gender supports this conclusion.
3."Temperate" (Gr. nethalion, 1 Timothy 3:2) means sober, vigilant, clear-headed, and well-balanced (cf. 1 Timothy 3:11; Titus 2:3).
4."Prudent" (Gr. sothron, 1 Timothy 3:2; cf. Titus 2:5) means self-controlled (NIV), and the same Greek word reads "sensible" in Titus 1:8.
"Such a Prayer of Manasseh , such a bishop, will not speak rashly, will be a person of sound judgment, will be master of himself, and of his situation." [13]
5."Respectable" (Gr. kosmios, 1 Timothy 3:2) means orderly, of good behavior, dignified and decent in his conduct. Some translators rendered the same Greek word "modest" in 1 Timothy 2:9.
6."Hospitable" (Gr. philoxenos, 1 Timothy 3:2) means one who opens his home to others. This was an especially essential quality in the early church since there were few public accommodations for traveling ministers and much need to take in needy Christians temporarily (cf. Acts 16:15; Acts 16:40). Hospitality is also very important today (cf. Romans 12:13; Titus 1:8). The Greek word means "loving the stranger." An elder should be a person who reaches out to strangers, the unsaved as well as believers, and makes them feel at home in his house.
7.The phrase "able to teach" (Gr. didaktikos, 1 Timothy 3:2) means apt, qualified, and competent to explain and defend the truth of God. This is the only qualification that involves ministry skill or gift. Some elders evidently gave more time to this ministry than others did ( 1 Timothy 5:17), but all had to be competent in the Scriptures (cf. Titus 1:9). The style of communication undoubtedly varied according to individual gifts (mass communication, small group teaching, personal instruction, etc.). Nevertheless all would have been expected to teach only after prayerful meditation on the Word and practical application of the Word to their own lives.
"The PE make it clear that the primary leadership is in the hands of the teachers.... Paul sees the church led by its teachers, those who can preach the truth and refute error; its primary leadership does not lie in the hands of administrators." [15]
Neither does it lie in the hands of "worship leaders."
8."Not addicted to wine" or "not given to drunkenness" (NIV Gr. me paroinon, 1 Timothy 3:3) means not a brawler, playboy, slave of drink, or drunkard (cf. Titus 1:7; 1 Corinthians 11:21). Paul evidently used "wine" to represent any enslaving beverage. We are probably corr