The Lord Jesus Christ gave instruction concerning what believers are to do in marriage when He taught during His earthly ministry ( Matthew 5:27-32; Matthew 19:3-12; Mark 10:1-12). Paul cited some of this teaching and added more of his own. This is one of the rare instances when Paul appealed directly to Jesus" teachings (cf. 1 Corinthians 9:14; 1 Corinthians 11:23; 1 Timothy 5:18). Usually he taught in harmony with Jesus without citing Him. Of course, God"s instructions through Paul are just as inspired and authoritative as His teaching through Jesus Christ during His earthly ministry. This is one of Paul"s few commands in this chapter (cf. 1 Corinthians 7:2-5). [source][source][source]
The main point of Paul"s advice is that Christians should not break up their marriages ( Matthew 19:4-6; Mark 10:7-9). "Leaving" and divorcing ( 1 Corinthians 7:12-13) were virtually the same in Greco-Roman culture. [1] "Separate" (Gr. chorizo) was vernacular for "divorce." [2] In our day one popular way to deal with marriage problems is to split up, and this has always been an attractive option for many people. Nevertheless the Lord"s will is that all people, including believers, work through their marital problems rather than giving up on them by separating permanently. [source][source][source]
Context Summary
1 Corinthians 7:1-14 - Marriage Bonds
The Apostle first addresses the unmarried, 1 Corinthians 7:1, etc. He speaks elsewhere reverently of marriage, Ephesians 5:23. Forbidding to marry is in his judgment a symptom of apostasy, 1 Timothy 4:1-3. His recommendations here were evidently due to the special circumstances of that difficult and perilous time. The loftiest conception of marriage is the wedding of two souls, each of which, has found its affinity; the Apostle is treating here the only conception of marriage entertained by these recent converts from paganism. He deals with them on their own level, with the determination of ultimately leading them to view marriage from Christ's standpoint. It is often well to fast from lawful things, that we may surrender ourselves more absolutely to the Spirit of God.
In addressing the married, 1 Corinthians 7:10, etc., Paul is not dealing with the formation of marriage ties; they are settled by 2 Corinthians 6:14. He is deciding what course shall be followed, when either a husband or a wife has become a Christian, the other remaining unchanged. He decides that the Christian should not separate, so long as the unbelieving partner is willing to continue their life together. [source]
Chapter Summary: 1 Corinthians 7
1He discusses marriage; 4showing it to be a remedy against sinful desires, 10and that the bond thereof ought not lightly to be dissolved 20Every man must be content with his vocation 25Virginity wherefore to be embraced; 35and for what respects we may either marry, or abstain from marrying
Greek Commentary for 1 Corinthians 7:10
To the married [τοις γεγαμηκοσιν] Perfect active participle of γαμεω gameō old verb, to marry, and still married as the tense shows. [source]
I give charge [παραγγελλω] Not mere wish as in 1 Corinthians 7:7,1 Corinthians 7:8. Not I, but the Lord (ουκ εγω αλλα ο κυριος ouk egō alla ho kurios). Paul had no commands from Jesus to the unmarried (men or women), but Jesus had spoken to the married (husbands and wives) as in Matthew 5:31.; Matthew 19:3-12; Mark 10:9-12; Luke 16:18. The Master had spoken plain words about divorce. Paul reenforces his own inspired command by the command of Jesus. In Mark 10:9 we have from Christ: “What therefore God joined together let not man put asunder” (μη χοριζετω mē chorizetō). That the wife depart not from her husband First aorist passive infinitive (indirect command after παραγγελλω paraggellō) of χοριζω chorizō old verb from adverbial preposition χωρις chōris separately, apart from, from. Here used of divorce by the wife which, though unusual then, yet did happen as in the case of Salome (sister of Herod the Great) and of Herodias before she married Herod Antipas. Jesus also spoke of it (Mark 10:12). Now most of the divorces are obtained by women. This passive infinitive is almost reflexive in force according to a constant tendency in the Koiné{[28928]}š (Robertson, Grammar, p. 817).sa120 [source]
Not I, but the Lord [ουκ εγω αλλα ο κυριος] Paul had no commands from Jesus to the unmarried (men or women), but Jesus had spoken to the married (husbands and wives) as in Matthew 5:31.; Matthew 19:3-12; Mark 10:9-12; Luke 16:18. The Master had spoken plain words about divorce. Paul reenforces his own inspired command by the command of Jesus. In Mark 10:9 we have from Christ: “What therefore God joined together let not man put asunder” (μη χοριζετω mē chorizetō). [source]
That the wife depart not from her husband [γυναικα απο ανδρος μη χοριστηναι] First aorist passive infinitive (indirect command after παραγγελλω paraggellō) of χοριζω chorizō old verb from adverbial preposition χωρις chōris separately, apart from, from. Here used of divorce by the wife which, though unusual then, yet did happen as in the case of Salome (sister of Herod the Great) and of Herodias before she married Herod Antipas. Jesus also spoke of it (Mark 10:12). Now most of the divorces are obtained by women. This passive infinitive is almost reflexive in force according to a constant tendency in the Koiné{[28928]}š (Robertson, Grammar, p. 817).sa120 [source]
Not I, but the Lord [] Referring to Christ's declarations respecting divorce, Matthew 5:31,Matthew 5:32; Matthew 19:3-12. Not a distinction between an inspired and an uninspired saying. Paul means that his readers had no need to apply to him for instruction in the matter of divorce, since they had the words of Christ himself. [source]
Reverse Greek Commentary Search for 1 Corinthians 7:10
1 Corinthians 7:12To the rest [] He has been speaking to the unmarried (1 Corinthians 7:8) and to married parties, both of whom were Christians (1 Corinthians 7:10). By the rest he means married couples, one of which remained a heathen. [source]
1 Corinthians 7:16For how knowest thou? [τι γαρ οιδασ] But what does Paul mean? Is he giving an argument against the believer accepting divorce or in favour of doing so? The syntax allows either interpretation with ει ei (if) after οιδας oidas Is the idea in ει ei (if) hope of saving the other or fear of not saving and hence peril in continuing the slavery of such a bondage? The latter idea probably suits the context best and is adopted by most commentators. And yet one hesitates to interpret Paul as advocating divorce unless strongly insisted on by the unbeliever. There is no problem at all unless the unbeliever makes it. If it is a hopeless case, acquiescence is the only wise solution. But surely the believer ought to be sure that there is no hope before he agrees to break the bond. Paul raises the problem of the wife first as in 1 Corinthians 7:10. [source]
1 Corinthians 7:25I have no commandment of the Lord [επιταγην Κυριου ουκ εχω] A late word from επιτασσω epitassō old Greek verb to enjoin, to give orders to. Paul did have (1 Corinthians 7:10) a command from the Lord as we have in Matthew and Mark. It was quite possible for Paul to know this command of Jesus as he did other sayings of Jesus (Acts 20:35) even if he had as yet no access to a written gospel or had received no direct revelation on the subject from Jesus (1 Corinthians 11:23). Sayings of Jesus were passed on among the believers. But Paul had no specific word from Jesus on the subject of virgins. They call for special treatment, young unmarried women only Paul means (1 Corinthians 7:25,1 Corinthians 7:28,1 Corinthians 7:34,1 Corinthians 7:36-38) and not as in Revelation 14:4 (metaphor). It is probable that in the letter (1 Corinthians 7:1) the Corinthians had asked about this problem. [source]
1 Timothy 5:18The laborer is worthy, etc. [] A second scriptural quotation would seem to be indicated, but there is no corresponding passage in the O.T. The words are found Luke 10:7, and, with a slight variation, Matthew 10:10. Some hold that the writer adds to the O.T. citation a popular proverb, and that Christ himself used the words in this way. But while different passages of Scripture are often connected in citation by καὶ , it is not according, to N.T. usage thus to connect Scripture and proverb. Moreover, in such series of citations it is customary to use καὶ πάλιν and again, or πάλιν simply. See Matthew 4:7; Matthew 5:33; John 12:39; Romans 15:9-12; 1 Corinthians 3:20; Hebrews 1:5; Hebrews 2:13. According to others, the writer here cites an utterance of Christ from oral tradition, coordinately with the O.T. citation, as Scripture. Paul, in 1 Thessalonians 4:15; 1 Corinthians 7:10, appeals to a word of the Lord; and in Acts 10:35he is represented as quoting “it is more blessed to give than to receive” as the words of Jesus. In 1Corinthians href="/desk/?q=1co+9:14&sr=1">1 Corinthians 9:14) “even so hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel,” which resembles the combination here. This last is the more probable explanation. [source]
What do the individual words in 1 Corinthians 7:10 mean?
To thosenowhaving marriedI give this chargenotIbuttheLordA wifefroma husbandnotis to be separated
Parse: Verb, Present Indicative Active, 1st Person Singular
Root: παραγγέλλω
Sense: to transmit a message along from one to another, to declare, announce.
Parse: Noun, Nominative Masculine Singular
Root: κύριος
Sense: he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lord.
Greek Commentary for 1 Corinthians 7:10
Perfect active participle of γαμεω gameō old verb, to marry, and still married as the tense shows. [source]
Not mere wish as in 1 Corinthians 7:7, 1 Corinthians 7:8. Not I, but the Lord (ουκ εγω αλλα ο κυριος ouk egō alla ho kurios). Paul had no commands from Jesus to the unmarried (men or women), but Jesus had spoken to the married (husbands and wives) as in Matthew 5:31.; Matthew 19:3-12; Mark 10:9-12; Luke 16:18. The Master had spoken plain words about divorce. Paul reenforces his own inspired command by the command of Jesus. In Mark 10:9 we have from Christ: “What therefore God joined together let not man put asunder” (μη χοριζετω mē chorizetō). That the wife depart not from her husband First aorist passive infinitive (indirect command after παραγγελλω paraggellō) of χοριζω chorizō old verb from adverbial preposition χωρις chōris separately, apart from, from. Here used of divorce by the wife which, though unusual then, yet did happen as in the case of Salome (sister of Herod the Great) and of Herodias before she married Herod Antipas. Jesus also spoke of it (Mark 10:12). Now most of the divorces are obtained by women. This passive infinitive is almost reflexive in force according to a constant tendency in the Koiné{[28928]}š (Robertson, Grammar, p. 817).sa120 [source]
Paul had no commands from Jesus to the unmarried (men or women), but Jesus had spoken to the married (husbands and wives) as in Matthew 5:31.; Matthew 19:3-12; Mark 10:9-12; Luke 16:18. The Master had spoken plain words about divorce. Paul reenforces his own inspired command by the command of Jesus. In Mark 10:9 we have from Christ: “What therefore God joined together let not man put asunder” (μη χοριζετω mē chorizetō). [source]
First aorist passive infinitive (indirect command after παραγγελλω paraggellō) of χοριζω chorizō old verb from adverbial preposition χωρις chōris separately, apart from, from. Here used of divorce by the wife which, though unusual then, yet did happen as in the case of Salome (sister of Herod the Great) and of Herodias before she married Herod Antipas. Jesus also spoke of it (Mark 10:12). Now most of the divorces are obtained by women. This passive infinitive is almost reflexive in force according to a constant tendency in the Koiné{[28928]}š (Robertson, Grammar, p. 817).sa120 [source]
Referring to Christ's declarations respecting divorce, Matthew 5:31, Matthew 5:32; Matthew 19:3-12. Not a distinction between an inspired and an uninspired saying. Paul means that his readers had no need to apply to him for instruction in the matter of divorce, since they had the words of Christ himself. [source]
Reverse Greek Commentary Search for 1 Corinthians 7:10
He has been speaking to the unmarried (1 Corinthians 7:8) and to married parties, both of whom were Christians (1 Corinthians 7:10). By the rest he means married couples, one of which remained a heathen. [source]
But what does Paul mean? Is he giving an argument against the believer accepting divorce or in favour of doing so? The syntax allows either interpretation with ει ei (if) after οιδας oidas Is the idea in ει ei (if) hope of saving the other or fear of not saving and hence peril in continuing the slavery of such a bondage? The latter idea probably suits the context best and is adopted by most commentators. And yet one hesitates to interpret Paul as advocating divorce unless strongly insisted on by the unbeliever. There is no problem at all unless the unbeliever makes it. If it is a hopeless case, acquiescence is the only wise solution. But surely the believer ought to be sure that there is no hope before he agrees to break the bond. Paul raises the problem of the wife first as in 1 Corinthians 7:10. [source]
A late word from επιτασσω epitassō old Greek verb to enjoin, to give orders to. Paul did have (1 Corinthians 7:10) a command from the Lord as we have in Matthew and Mark. It was quite possible for Paul to know this command of Jesus as he did other sayings of Jesus (Acts 20:35) even if he had as yet no access to a written gospel or had received no direct revelation on the subject from Jesus (1 Corinthians 11:23). Sayings of Jesus were passed on among the believers. But Paul had no specific word from Jesus on the subject of virgins. They call for special treatment, young unmarried women only Paul means (1 Corinthians 7:25, 1 Corinthians 7:28, 1 Corinthians 7:34, 1 Corinthians 7:36-38) and not as in Revelation 14:4 (metaphor). It is probable that in the letter (1 Corinthians 7:1) the Corinthians had asked about this problem. [source]
Or in the word. Λόγος of a concrete saying, Romans 9:9; Romans 13:9. We do not say this on our own authority. Comp. 1 Corinthians 7:10, 1 Corinthians 7:12, 1 Corinthians 7:25. No recorded saying of the Lord answers to this reference. It may refer to a saying transmitted orally, or to a direct revelation to Paul. Comp. Galatians 1:12; Galatians 2:2; Ephesians 3:3; 2 Corinthians 12:1, 2 Corinthians 12:9. [source]
A second scriptural quotation would seem to be indicated, but there is no corresponding passage in the O.T. The words are found Luke 10:7, and, with a slight variation, Matthew 10:10. Some hold that the writer adds to the O.T. citation a popular proverb, and that Christ himself used the words in this way. But while different passages of Scripture are often connected in citation by καὶ , it is not according, to N.T. usage thus to connect Scripture and proverb. Moreover, in such series of citations it is customary to use καὶ πάλιν and again, or πάλιν simply. See Matthew 4:7; Matthew 5:33; John 12:39; Romans 15:9-12; 1 Corinthians 3:20; Hebrews 1:5; Hebrews 2:13. According to others, the writer here cites an utterance of Christ from oral tradition, coordinately with the O.T. citation, as Scripture. Paul, in 1 Thessalonians 4:15; 1 Corinthians 7:10, appeals to a word of the Lord; and in Acts 10:35he is represented as quoting “it is more blessed to give than to receive” as the words of Jesus. In 1Corinthians href="/desk/?q=1co+9:14&sr=1">1 Corinthians 9:14) “even so hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel,” which resembles the combination here. This last is the more probable explanation. [source]